# NTS Physics Mcqs with Answers

Here you can practice all the latest NTS Physics Mcqs with Answers for free. We have provided the best content for the preparation of any type of NTS Physics Test, we recommend all of you to take all the tests in order to pass the tests. All the candidates are advised to attempt all the tests till the end to get high marks in the exam. NTS Physics Online Mcqs are being added below. It is mandatory to take the NTS Test to get admission to Colleges and Universities which are recognized by the HEC.

Contents

## Free Online NTS Physics Preparation MCQs

NTS Online Tests are for preparing all the questions related to NTS Physics Mcqs with Answers. we have tests related to different topics that will help the students to prepare well for the NTS Physics TestNTS is one of the organizations in Pakistan that offers two types of tests, the Graduate Assessment Test and the National Physics Test. NTS conducts subject-wise tests in which Physics Test is also an important subject.

## NTS Physics MCQs With Answers

1. The SI standard of time is based on:
A. the daily rotation of the earth
B. the frequency of light emitted by Kr86
C. the yearly revolution of the earth about the sun
D. none of these

Option D

2. A nanosecond is:
A. 109 s
B. 10−9 s
C. 10−10 s
D. 10−10 s

Option B

3. The SI standard of length is based on:
A. the distance from the north pole to the equator along a meridian passing through Paris
B. wavelength of light emitted by Hg198
C. wavelength of light emitted by Kr86
D. the speed of light

Option D

4. In 1866, the U. S. Congress defined the U. S. yard as exactly 3600/3937 international meter. This was done primarily because:
A. length can be measured more accurately in meters than in yards
B. the meter is more stable than the yard
C. this definition relates the common U. S. length units to a more widely used system
D. there are more wavelengths in a yard than in a meter

Option C

5. Which of the following is closest to a yard in length?
A. 0.01 m
B. 0.1 m
C. 1 m
D. 100 m

Option C

6. There is no SI base unit for area because:
A. an area has no thickness; hence no physical standard can be built
B. we live in a three (not a two) dimensional world
C. it is impossible to express square feet in terms of meters
D. area can be expressed in terms of square meters

Option D

7. The SI base unit for mass is:
A. gram
B. pound
C. kilogram
D. ounce

Option C

8. A gram is:
A. 10−6 kg
B. 10−3 kg
C. 1 kg
D. 103 kg

Option B

9. Which of the following weighs about a pound?
A. 0.05 kg
B. 0.5 kg
C. 5 kg
D. 50 kg

Option D

10. (5.0 × 104) × (3.0 × 106) =
A. 1.5 × 109
B. 1.5 × 1010
C. 1.5 × 1011
D. 1.5 × 1012

Option C

11. (5.0 × 104) × (3.0 × 10−6) =
A. 1.5 × 10−3
B. 1.5 × 10−1
C. 1.5 × 101
D. 1.5 × 103

Option B

12. 5.0 × 105 + 3.0 × 106 =
A. 8.0 × 105
B. 8.0 × 106
C. 5.3 × 105
D. 3.5 × 106

Option D

13. (7.0 × 106)/(2.0 × 10−6) =
A. 3.5 × 10−12
B. 3.5 × 10−6
C. 3.5
D. 3.5 × 1012

Option D

14. The number of significant figures in 0.00150 is:
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5

Option B

15. The number of significant figures in 15.0 is:
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4

Option C

16. 3.2 × 2.7 =
A. 9
B. 8
C. 8.6
D. 8.64

Option C

17. 1.513 + 27.3 =
A. 29
B. 28.8
C. 28.9
D. 28.81

Option B

18. 1 mi is equivalent to 1609 m so 55 mph is:
A. 15 m/s
B. 25 m/s
C. 66 m/s
D. 88 m/s

Option B

19. A sphere with a radius of 1.7 cm has a volume of:
A. 2.1 × 10−5 m3
B. 9.1 × 10−4 m3
C. 3.6 × 10−3 m3
D. 0.11 m3

Option A

20. A sphere with a radius of 1.7 cm has a surface area of:
A. 2.1 × 10−5 m2
B. 9.1 × 10−4 m2
C. 3.6 × 10−3 m2
D. 0.11 m2

Option C

21. A right circular cylinder with a radius of 2.3 cm and a height of 1.4 m has a volume of:
A. 0.20 m3
B. 0.14 m3
C. 9.3 × 10−3 m3
D. 2.3 × 10−3 m3

Option D

22. A right circular cylinder with a radius of 2.3 cm and a height of 1.4 cm has a total surface area
of:
A. 1.7 × 10−3 m2
B. 3.2 × 10−3 m2
C. 2.0 × 10−3 m3
D. 5.3 × 10−3 m2

Option D

23. A cubic box with an edge of exactly 1 cm has a volume of:
A. 10−9 m3
B. 10−6 m3
C. 10−3 m3
D. 103 m3

Option B

24. A square with an edge of exactly 1 cm has an area of:
A. 10−6 m2
B. 10−4 m2
C. 102 m2
D. 104 m2

Option B

25. 1 m is equivalent to 3.281 ft. A cube with an edge of 1.5 ft has a volume of:
A. 1.2 × 102 m3
B. 9.6 × 10−2 m3
C. 10.5 m3
D. 9.5 × 10−2 m3

Option B

26. During a short interval of time the speed v in m/s of an automobile is given by v = at2 + bt3,
where the time t is in seconds. The units of a and b are respectively:
A. m • s2; m • s4
B. s3/m; s4/m
C. m/s2; m/s3
D. m/s3; m/s4

Option D

27. Suppose A = BC, where A has the dimension L/M and C has the dimension L/T. Then B
has the dimension:
A. T/M
B. L2/TM
C. TM/L2
D. L2T/M

Option A

28. Air bubble in water shines because of the phenomenon of
A. Dispersion
B. Refraction
C. Diffraction
D. Total internal reflection

Option D

29. Sun and the other stars are virtuously huge nuclear explosion chambers producing a large amount of head and light yet, we do not hear any of the explosions because
A. Heat and light are electromagnetic
B. Sound waves get attenuated completely before they reach the earth
C. the process involved in the interior of the sun and the starts relate to atomic and subatomic particles and not molecules and their vibration
D. the outer space is an absolute vacuum

Option D

30. The advantage of AC over DC is that
A. it contain more electrical energy
B. it is free from voltage fluctuation
C. its generation coats much less
D. it can be transmitted over long distances with minimum power loss

Option D

31. What minimum escape velocity—the speed necessary to counter earth gravity and to break away from earth into outer—space required from a rocket to be lunched into space?
A. 5 km per second
B. 6 km per second
C.11 km per second
D.20 km per second

Option C

32. Which of the following device is use to step down the voltage of alternating current?
A. induction cool
B. Transformers
C. Transistor
D. Rectifier

Option B

33. The spherical shape of a small drop of a rain is due to
A. Viscosity
B. Surface tension
C. atmospheric pressure
D. gravity

Option B

34. The blue color of sky can be attributed to
A. differential scattering of the sunlight by the atmosphere
B. Total internal reflection of the sunlight by the atmosphere
C. Absorption of sunlight
D. Refraction of sunlight by the atmosphere

Option A

35. Which one of the following sets of properties are relevant for an electrical fuse wire needed for normal application?
A. Thick wire, high melting point alloy, short length
B. thick wire, low melting point alloy, large length
C. Short length, low melting point alloy, thin wire
D. Large length, low melting point alloy, thin wire

Option A

36. Ice floats on water because the density of Ice is less than that of water, Out of the following what part of giant icebergs remains above water?
A. 1/10
B. 1/4
C. 1/2
D. ¾

Option B

37. Which one of the following coolers has the longest wavelength?
A. Green
B. Yellow
C. Blue
D. Red

Option D

38. Which one of the following can be used to focus sunlight?
A. Plan mirror
B. Concave lens
C. Concave mirror
D. Convex mirror

Option C

39. Which one of the following is a good conductor of electricity?
A. PVC
B. Glass
C. Rubber
D. Graphite

Option D

40. The tendency of a liquid drop to contract and occupy minimum area is due to
A. Surface tension
B. Viscosity
C. Density
D. Vapour pressure

Option A

41. Choke coil is coil of
A. High resistance and high inductance
B. Low resistance and high inductance
C.High resistance and low inductance
D. Low resistance and low inductance

Option B

42. Conductors, insolators and semi- conductors differ from each other due to property of
A. ability of the current of carry
B. formation of crystal lattice
C. binding energy of their electrons
D. mutual width of their energy gaps

Option D

43. On which principle dose the tape- recorder function?
A. Electromagnetic Induction
B. Electrovalency
C. Gay music’s law of combining volume
D. Boyle’s Law

Option A

44. When a constant force is applied to a body it move with uniform
A. Momentum
B. Velocity
C. Speed
D. Acceleration

Option B

45. The silvered surface of thermos flask prevents transfer of heat by
A. Conduction
B. Convection
C. Reflection

Option D

46. When wind blows at high velocity roof tops are blown off because pressure
A. Outside is more than inside the roof
B. inside is more than outside the roof
C. Increases due to wind velocity
D. Is exerted by air from outside

Option B

47. Tube light works on the principle of
A. Chemical effect of current
B. Heating effect of current
C. Magnetic effect of current
D. Discharge of electricity through gases

Option D

48. in a refrigerator, cooling is produced by
A. The Ice is deposits on the freezer
B. The evaporation of a volatile liquid
C. The sudden expansion of a compressed gas
D. Increases stability

Option B

49. On earth a removed from an electric bulb to prevent
A. Oxidation of tungsten filament
B. Bursting of bulb
C. Loss of light due to absorption
D.None of the above

Option A

50. A person climbing a hill bends forward in order to
A. Avoid slipping
B. Increases speed
C. Reduce fatigue
D. Increases stability

Option D

51. On earth a moving body ordinarily comes to rest by it self because of the
A. Law of inertia
B. Forces of friction
C. Conservation of momentum
D. Gravity

Option B

52. When the door of an operating refrigerator is opened the temperature of the room will
A. Decreases
B. Remain unchanged
C. Fall down immediately
D. increases

Option D

53. An electric motor is used to convert
A. Electrical energy into mechanical energy
B. Mechanical energy into kinetic energy
C. Mechanical energy into electrical energy
D. Higher voltage to lower voltage

Option C

54. Two parallel wires carrying currents in the same direction attract each other because official
A. Potential difference between them
B. Mutual inductance between them
C. Electric forces between them
D. Magnetic forces between them

Option C

55. Energy of a body due to its motion is called
A. Heat energy
B. Kinetic energy
C. potential energy
D. Light energy

Option B

56. A moving ball stops due to action of
A. Nuclear forces
B. frictienal forces
C. Electric forces
D. Magnetic forces

Option B

57. The energy stored in a stretched spring is
A. Potential energy
B. kinetic energy
C. heat energy
D. Electrical energy

Option D

58. In cells chemical energy is transformed into
A. kinetic energy
B. potential energy
C. heat energy
D. Electrical energy

Option D

59. When body is dropped from a certain height, the gravitational potential energy is converted into
A. Elastic potential energy
B. chemical energy
C. kinetic energy
D. Light energy

Option C

60. Human body converts chemical potential energy of food into
A. kinetic energy
B. Light energy
C. Nuclear energy
D. heat energy

Option D

61. Electrochemical energy is required for the working of
A. Circulatory system
B. Nervous system
C. Excretory system
D. Digestive system

Option B

62. When cat laps for its prey them the chemical energy presents in its muscles is converted to
A. potential energy then to light energy
B. potential energy then to kinetic energy
C.Electrical energy then to heat energy
D. Heat energy then to nuclear energy

Option B

63. The energy stored in the fossil fuel is
A. chemical energy
B. heat energy
C. Electrical energy
D. Elastic potential energy

Option A

64. Semi -conductor is such a substance, whose ability to conduct current lies in between
A. conductors and insulators
B. conductors and superconductors
C. insulators and superconductors
D. Wood and plastic

Option A

65. Though the temperature inside lighted electric bulb is around 2700C, the filament dose not burn because:
A. The metal of which it is made is resistant to burning
B. the oxygen necessary for combustion (and bumming) is not available as the bulb is evacuated and filled with pure nitrogen or inert gases
C. it dose not burn in closed systems
D. it is made of non- metallic substance

Option B

66. Celsius is the unit of _______.
B. Heat
C. equivalent to kelvin
D. equivalent ot Fahrenheit

Option A

67. Absolute Zero may be regarded as the temperature at which _______.
A. Gases become liquid
B. Molecular Motion in gas would cease
C. Both A & B
D. None of the above.

Option B

68. The Thermometer used to measure 2000 Degree Centigrade or more is _______.
B. Mercury thermometer
C. Gas thermometer
D. None of the Above.

Option A

69. A clinical thermometer is usually shorter than a laboratory thermometer because ________.
A. It is marked in Fahrenheit not in centigrade
B. only a limited range of temperature is required
C. Due to its length it will be difficult to hold in mouth
D. None of the Above.

Option B

70. Which one is not correctly matched _____.
A. Humidity-Calorimeter
B. Temperature-Thermometer
C. Milk-Lactometer
D. all of the above.

Option A

71. The temperature and pressure at which ice, water and steam coexist ______.
A. null point state
B. triple point
C. Both A & B
D. None of the Above

Option B

72. Device which is used to measure the temperature of Sun is _______.
A. Gas Thermometer
B. Pyrometer
C. Platinum Thermometer
D. all of the above.

Option B

73. If the temperature of the patient at Fahrenheit scale is 40 Degree Centigrade , what will be his temperature on Fahrenheit Scale _______.

Option C

74. Two Thermometer one in Fahrenheit scale and other in Centigrade scale are used to measure the temperature of same object , if the reading are Degree Centigrade and Fahrenheit then ____.
A. F = C
B. C > F
C. F> C
D. F < >= C

Option D

75. At Absolute Zero all Gases ______.
A. Water Freezes
B. Water Boils
C. Both A & B
D. All gases liquifies.

Option D

76. Lorentz force is the sum of:
A. Gravitational and centripetal force
B. Electric and magnetic force
C. Magnetic and nuclear force
D. Electrical and nuclear force

Option B

77. The areas under the hysteresis loop is proportional to
A. Magnetic energy density
B. Thermal energy per unit volume
C. Electric energy per unit volume
D. Mechanical energy per unit volume

Option C

78. The frequency of A.C is measured using:
A. Multimeter
B. avometer
C. tachometer
D. speedometer

Option C

79. Del. E = rho/epsilon not is called
A. gauss’s law
C. ampere’s law
D. biot savart’s law

Option A

80. For computation of the rate at which the dipole radiates energy, the interaction of the normal component of __________ is done over sphere of radius R.
A. electric field
B. pointing vector

Option A

81. Semiconductor materials have _____ bonds.
A. Ionic
B. covalent
C. mutual
D. metallic

Option B

82. The depletion region of a pn junction is formed:
A. During the manufacturing process
B. When forward bias is applied to it
C. Under reverse bias
D. When its temperature is reduced

Option B

83. The current amplification factor DC is given by:
A. Ic/ie
B. Ic/Ib
C. Ib/Ie
D. Ib/Ic

Option A

84. In amplitude modulation
A. Carrier frequency is changed
B. Carrier amplitude is changed
C. Three sidebands are produced
D. Fidelity is improved

Option B

85. Demodulation
A. Is performed at the transmitting station
B. Removes side bands
C. Rectifies modulation signal
D. Is opposite of modulation

Option D

86. Which of the following x-ray lines will have the largest frequency in a given element
A. K alpha
B. K beta
C. L gamma
D. it depends on the element

Option B

87. Which of these statements is a consequence of planck’s derivation of a radiation law?
A. Atomic oscillator can emit and absorb energy at discrete values only
B. atomic oscillator can emit and absorb energy at discrete frequencies only
C. Both A & B
D. None of these

Option B

88. The Zeeman effect without the spin of the electron is called_____ Zeeman effect
A. anomalous
B. normal
C. paschen
D. None of these

Option A

89. Zero point energy of harmonic oscillator is
A. hw
B. hw/2
C. zero
D. hw2

Option B

90. According to pauli exclusion principle for two identical ferminions the total __ is antisymmetric
A. Matrix
B. wave function
C. operator
D. tensor

Option B

91. The decay rate of a radioactivity is measured in units of
A. curies
B. roentgens
D. rems

Option C

92. Why are the fission fragments usually radioactive?
A. They come originally from radioactive U235
B. They have a large neutron excess
C. They have a large binding energy per nucleon
D. They are moving at high speed

Option C

93. In a nuclear reactor, the function of the moderator is
A. To absorb neutrons
B. To keep the reactor from going critical
C. To slow down the neutrons
D. To absorb heat from the core

Option C

94. What is the main difficulty associated with the fusion process as a source of electrical power
A. The scarcity of fuel
B. The coulomb barrier
C. The radioactivity of the products
D. The danger of an explosion

Option B

95. Binding energy of a deuteron is
A. 2.22 Mev
B. 2.8Mev
C. 2.3Mev
D. none of these

Option A

96. If A= 6i-8j, then 4A has the magnitude:
A. 40
B. 10
C. 20
D. None of these

Option A

97. Let A= 2i+6j-3k and B= 4i+2j+k then A.B equals:
A. 8i+12j-3k
B. 17
C. 23
D. None of these

Option B

98. If V is an operator, then V.V means:
A. Gradient of a Scalar field
B. Curl of a vector field
C. Divergence of a Vector field
D. None of these

Option D

99. The volume of a parallelepiped bounded by Vectors A,B and C can be obtained from the
expression:
A. ( A x B ).C
B. (A.B) x C
C. ( A x B ) x C
D. None of these